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Username: spot2
Date/Time: Mon, January 14, 2002 at 8:31 PM GMT
Browser: Microsoft Internet Explorer V5.5 using Windows 98
Subject: It depends whether the 'and' legally means the same as a boolean AND

Message:
 

 
Quoting from their rules:

There shall, without exclusion, be a sufficient demonstration of an abusive registration if the registrant is not a natural person and cannot demonstrate that they registered the domain name with the agreement at the time of a specific natural person, and that the domain name was a reasonably faithful representation of that person's legal name.

If this is boolean, then all 3 things must be demonstrated.

1. if the registrant is not a natural person
2. cannot demonstrate that they registered the domain name with the agreement at the time of a specific natural person
3. that the domain name was a reasonably faithful representation of that person's legal name.

So if the registrant is a natural person, then they cannot demonstrate all three.

Then again, they may not mean the boolean and, i don't know. I am not a lawyer.

Then again, who has a surname of Microsoft or Fuck anyway?
 


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