Quoting from their rules:There shall, without exclusion, be a sufficient demonstration
of an abusive registration if the registrant is not a natural person and cannot demonstrate
that they registered the domain name with the agreement at the time of a specific
natural person, and that the domain name was a reasonably faithful representation
of that person's legal name.
If this is boolean, then all 3 things must be demonstrated.
1.
if the registrant is not a natural person
2. cannot demonstrate that they registered
the domain name with the agreement at the time of a specific natural person
3.
that the domain name was a reasonably faithful representation of that person's legal
name.
So if the registrant is a natural person, then they cannot demonstrate all
three.
Then again, they may not mean the boolean and, i don't know. I am not a
lawyer.
Then again, who has a surname of Microsoft or Fuck anyway?