Re: [gnso-idng] rethinking IDN gTLDs

[Avri Doria <avri@xxxxxxx>]

On 2 Dec 2009, at 14:27, Gomes, Chuck wrote:

> Avri,
> 
> If I understand you correctly, your conclusion is not correct.  FCFS will 
> only apply (for LDH or IDN) if the exact second-level domain is not already 
> registered as a second-level domain name in the applicable TLD (LDH or IDN).

On 2 Dec 2009, at 15:14, Edmon Chung wrote:

> Edmon: I think Avri you probably mistook the idea... I think what Chuck and
> I were talking about is NOT about translation at the second level.  But
> offering the same string to the same registrant under an IDN TLD.  More
> specifically, for example, a registrant of "computer.asia" will be offered
> "computer.???" (where "???" is "Asia" in Japanese), OR a registrant for
> "???????.asia" (where "???????" means "Internet" in Japanese) will be
> offered "???????.???".  There is no translation involved.
> 
>> 

Pardon me, but i remain confused:

concrete example/question
(ps we beter develop a way of talking about this that is not confusing.  if we 
who supposedl understand at least somewhat of what is going on can't 
communicate, opps, we have trouble.)


I have ella.com and i might like to have it in Hebrew.

would i get ella.Hebrew_TLD-of-dotcom

or would i have אלה.com
or is that אללה.com
or maybe even אלילה.com

(viable transliterations ad translations)

If we are talking about a translation or transliteration then I remian confused 
as to how one does it.  If you talking about just giving me the LDH with a 
IDN-tld, ok, i understand.

a.